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Quote From : eternally-gratefull April 30, 2010, 12:36 pm Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
Eternally-Grateful.
To save time, I have decided to give you the lead on this discussion and simply answer the questions you asked at the end.
1. Why do you want to interject that Paul said we were chosen to have faith when it is not stated or inferred?
He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we would be holy and blameless before Him
God chose us, those who will be Christians, so that, in order that, they would be justified. This statement of Scripture declares a causal progression with God’s choice, election, being the logically prior, sufficient condition to justification, i.e., if God chose you, then you will be justified. Faith is also a logically prior, sufficient condition for justification. At this point, we have a choice:
Agree so far! Except will go further, and point out a gramatical problem, like you like to do to me ( althought I think most of the time you are being to critical, like here I am sure you do not mean there are other requirements, but wanted to point out how rediculous it is to make take grammar to serious, and point out only errors here to make your point.)
Faith is not a logical sufficient condition. It is the only condition. without faith, there is no justification. Saying it is just a logical sufficient condition leaves open the fact that there could be other conditions.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
(1) God chose who would have faith, that this faith would be counted as righteousness and they would be justified, (2) God chose what condition (faith) man must meet to be saved, or (3) God chose, on some criteria, condition (i.e., faith), those he would count as righteous.
The first interpretation is clear and direct to the text.
Yet again you did not prove you point. Like I said earlier, Paul did not say we are chosen to have faith. He made it clear we who have (or had) faith were chosen. Again using semantics. Your point is lost in the fact Paul did not say we were chosen to have faith. But we who had faith were chosen. I asked you this earlier in my post you did not respond. so here would be a good time to respond;
basically, If you are correct, I would have expected paul to write like this:
11 In Him also we have
obtained an inheritance, being predestined according to the purpose of
Him who works all things according to the counsel of His will, 12 that we who first (were Chosen to be able to trust) in Christ should be to the praise of His glory. .
If they were chosen to be able to trust as you say, then why did Paul not say it? instead of making a statement that we who first trusted. Why should I interject, or assume a meaning that is not readily known, or infered by the text. Paul said we who first trusted, meaning they made their own decision to trust Christ. it was not coerced, or forced, it was a free will choice. I can not interpret it any other way.
13 In Him you also trusted, after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in
whom also, having believed, you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of
promise, 14 who is the guarantee of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, to the praise of His glory.
[b] [/b]Again here, Paul did not say they were "chosen" to trust or believe, as I would expect him to say if you were correct. He said they did two things. They heard the gospel, and after they heard, they chose to trust in what the gospel said, and because of this they were saved and sealed by the spirit.
how can you ignore the fact of sentence structure. Paul said after they did 2 things (hear the word and trust it), they were sealed. Paul is making a statement of fact, that two things these people did caused the very thing Paul has been speaking of, and that all they were promised through the gospel (the inheritance, adoption as sons, and made holy and blameless) was not only given to them. but had the seal of the HS as a guarantee. And that their chosing to trust Christ praises God. Just like when we chose to trust God and do the things God wants us to do. God gets the glory, not us. But we have to make a personal decision to trust God, and do those things, and not rely on self. The only difference is here we are trusting Christ alone, After salvation, we are trusting Christ to give us the power to do what it is he wants us to do, but we have to act. where here, there is no action, only Faith.
I can not twist this to say paul is trying to say they were chosen to have faith, when paul did not in any place in this passage say this is what happened. If you want to prove it, You have to show how paul said we were chosen to have faith, and did not say we were given these things because we heard and had faith. otherwise, I can not see it in this passage, and am not going to twist what Paul said, or make an assumtion he said something which other than what he literally said.[b]
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Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
We are the ones who are being predestined to be justified. I know of no other way to interpret this verse.
I agree. we are predestined to be justified. You are 100 % correct.
I would like to point out that my two sentences Quote The first interpretation is clear and direct to the text. and Quote We are the ones who are being predestined to be justified. were directly connected to the exact same concept. The choice of God determined who would be justified. Justification requires faith, therefore God's choice determines who will be justified by faith in some way. That way is specified in v5; God predestined us to be adopted, i.e., God worked out all things necessary in history as to insure those he chose to be justified would be justified unto adoption, including faith. Please try not to comment in mid thought. I frankly could have placed a ";" between theses clauses without any change in meaning, therefore you should not have divided them.
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Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
The second and third are convoluted and not found in this text. “How one is saved” is not being chosen here. God is not choosing “the mode of salvation”, i.e, faith alone. God is not choosing people based on some condition. People are the ones who are chosen, and God is choosing individual people to be justified according to (or based upon) the purpose of his will, not according to their faith. That is the simple reading of the text.
I can't agree, Paul said, Whoever heard the gospel and trusted were sealed. He was speaking of them receiving what he also received. and why they received it. The requirements here are hearing and trusting. Not just hearing alone, Those who have heard, and not yet trusted did not receive the promises God is offering, Paul makes it clear, they have what God promised, because they did the two requirements. Again your interjecting something that is against what Paul said.
If I go to a group of military people and say they are here and receive all the military has to offer because they heard their recruiter and trusted what he said. I can not try to twist his words and say they are here and will receive all the military has to offer because they were chosen to go to the recruiter and believe what he said without saying this is actually what happened. I would have to assume it is right without proof, or interject this is what happened without any acknowledgment this is what happened.
The first is a statement of fact. two causes which gave them the promises, The second is an assumption, which can not be founded in what was said, but would have to be assumed that the military went out, Looked at everyone, and chose who to send to the recruiter, or who to send the recruiter to, which is not said, not implied, or even spoken of. Not to mention, to continue your belief, if the second was true, The military would have to 1. Know the people they chose would freely believe and join, or 2, force them to join, which again is not stated or implied.
Yes, Those who trust and believe are then sealed. But, what part of v13-14 says man's choice to trust and believe is the basis for their sealing? The verses simply says "when you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation, and believed in him, were sealed". There is no causal relationship being described here. All that is described in this verse is a temporal progression. These are not requirements in this text. These are simply ordered events. Paul is just giving a time marker for when one is sealed with the Holy Spirit. One is sealed after they believe in contrast to one is chosen before the foundation of the world.
Making the analogy of this concept to entering the military is completely misplaced.
1) You have no justification for it. You are simply describing you doctrine through an analogy. All you did was assert the Arminian concept of the salvation: meet these requirements, trust and believe, and then God will save you. I am sorry, but this is the exact same structure as Rome: meet these requirements, get baptized, confirmed, try not to sin, repent and do penance when you sin, take the Eucharist, etc. etc. etc., and then God will save you. The list of requirements in Catholic Dogma are longer, and you deny that your choice to trust and believe is a work; BUT, the structure is the same. Meet these requirements, and you will be saved. Is not entering the military the exact same analogy as a day laborer working in a field for his pay? Isn't this the exact thing Paul directly condemned in Romans 4?
2) Your military analogy has another problem too. It completely IGNORES the fact that God is the other party. God is not some military wooing men to enter it by offering good benefits. God is choosing those he wishes to save, God is working out this choice in history as to accomplish it, God is redeeming, God is giving inheritances, and God is sealing. God is not passively giving salvation to all those who meet his requirements. God is saving men in spite of themselves. The very fact that you wish to equate God's salvation to a "JOB" like the military shows the inconsistency of your understanding.
"The first is a statement of fact: two causes which gave them the promises"? Wrong and completely unjustified.
"The second is an assumption..."? Really? God Chose those he would justify. He predestined, he worked out beforehand the exact course of history as to accomplish his goal of adopting the ones he justified.
"if the second was true..." or 3, change the hearts of those who do not want anything to do with God. This is not force against a will because it is the will itself that is changing. BTW, Nice job again rejecting my position based upon some perceived violence to your personhood.
Quote Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
2. Why did Paul say they were chosen who had faith, and not say we were chosen to have faith. They have two different meanings.
You are right that these two phrases have different meanings. But, Eph. 1 does not say “they were chosen who had faith”. It says we were chosen “to be” justified (NIV). The Bible doesn’t say what you are claiming Paul said. v11-14 does not mention God’s choice. Predestination is not a choice but a action. It is God fixing the very course of history for his means.
To believe this you have to take out vs 11 - 14. For paul makes it clear, that two actions enabled them (not only paul but also those who he was speaking to, to recieve the things which were promised.
Second. Your definition of predestination is not quite correct. It not only can be a choice, but an action which must be taken by two partied. If I predetermine that my oldest daughter will receive my inheritance. I must state so in my will, which is an action. But my daughter must also act or she will not receive it. Inaction on her part due to the fact she either does not have faith I have anything worth offering her, and thus a refusal to do what is needed to get what I left her, or not going to hear whether I left her anything or not. will leave her out on the cold, and she will receive nothing I wanted to give her.
The same Goes with what God is offering. If I do not have faith that he has something worth giving, or do not listen to God say he has something he is offering me, I will be left out with no inheritance.
My point was you HIGHLY EISEGETED v11-14. Therefore, I do not have to take them out of the Bible. I simply need to read the text correctly, as I JUST DID.
Nice job completely and utterly redefining the simply word "predestined". Is this how predestined is being used in Acts. 4:28? Men acted "to do whatever your (God's) hand and your plan had predestined to take place." Is God simply willing, as in writing a will, that men would be conformed to the image of his Son (Rom. 8:29)? Does this even make logical sense? Or is God determining beforehand what will happen in history?
God is determining beforehand what will happen to us in history! Predestined is not "making a choice" in any way, shape, or form. You are not using the word correctly in your analogy. You already chose before writing the will. The writing of the will is the act that "predetermines" what will happen with your resources. Yes, you can put specifications in your will, but applying this concept to God in predestining his elect unto adoption/obtaining an inheritance is compete EISEGESIS. Where is this concept in the TEXT? God is the one who works out all things after the good pleasure of his will. Your analogy falls apart in every way. What second party was required for God to send down fire from heaven to consume Sodom? What second party was required for God to predetermine to wipe out the world with a flood? What second party was required for God to predetermine the events surrounding the crucification? God chooses how history will work out! He predestines! This is what this word means: to determine before hand the very destiny of history.
Quote Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
3. Why did you interject a meaning that Paul meant their message to effectually Spread the message so that others can be brought to christ when it is not eve referenced or inferred?
The “we” in v12 is a different group of people from the rest of the “we/us”s in the passage. The “we” in v12 are those “who were the first to hope in Christ”; it is being contrasted with the you, those who are receiving the letter. “The first to hope in Christ” are the Apostles, including Paul and maybe some of the missionaries with Paul.
I agree and see your point that Paul was speaking of two groups. However it does not explain why you interjected what God predestined in these verses.
The problem with your theory is trying to seperate 11 from 13. in vs 11, In him we also, Paul is making it clear that they were not the only ones to receive this. But paul and those with him also received it. why did he recieve it? because he stated in vs 12. he had faith in Christ. Then if vs 13, he says they also. meaning it was not just paul and those with him, but everything that was promised was given to all of them. and why did they recieve it? Because they too had faith in Christ. Your trying to assume meaning without prove, and interject something that may or may not be true. Since when do we base our faith in hypotheticals (may or may not be true) and not on facts? My theory is not a hypothetical. Paul also recieved what he said they recieved through faith (vs 11 - 12) and they also recieved what Paul said they received based on faith ( 13 - 14) This is the only logical conclusion we can have without a hypothetical or assumption being added to the text.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
v11-12 says God predestined us, to obtain an inheritance, so that the Apostles, including Paul and maybe some of the missionaries with Paul might be to the praise of his Glory.
No, Paul is saying they also were destined to receive the inheritance. Just like the ones he was writing to. And he stated how they got it. By having faith. He was including himself and those with him with the people he was writing to. It was not just them who recieved it. It was "we" paul and those who were with him, and all the churches.
Again your theory is based on a hypothetical and assumption.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
How did Paul and his fellow Apostles become to the praise of his Glory related to these followers who also obtained and inheritance? I simply postulated a reasonable answer to this relevant question. There are other reasonable answers to this question.
read what you just posted. How did paul receieve what they also recieved. You just made my last few points valid. This is what paul was saying. He also received what they recieved, This does not prove your point as to why you are trying to interject paul to say he chose them to give the gospel so others could hear and also believe, Is it not all of our responsibilities to spread the gospel? or just the apostles and leaders?? Paul was making a statement of fact. They also received the promises because they had faith. There is nothing in this passage which would lead us to conclude paul meant anything other than this.
Perhaps you should have read my answer to question 4 before you into answer 3, and Notice, I was not being dogmatic about this interpretation. Therefore, this conclusion is not something for which I was fighting. BTW, I still disagree with your reading of v11-14, and what you have said so far does not even start to interact with the grammatical structure of the passage.
Quote Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
4. Why do you try to break up Pauls message between vs 12 and 13 to mean two different things, when it is clear as the "we" and "you" are the same people. meaning he was continuing his thought. not changing it?
This one has to do with the structure of the overarching passage. In Greek, v3-14 is one long sentence. In v4-14, Paul is describing the “spiritual blessing” he mentioned in v3. The spiritual blessings include God’s choice (v4), predestination (v5), redemption (v7), forgiveness (v7; some take forgiveness has a restatement of redemption. I don’t care how you take it: one blessing or two separate blessings.), making known to us the mystery of his will (v9), obtaining an inheritance (v11), and being sealed with Holy Spirit (v13). v11-12 pertain to obtaining an inheritance. v13-14 pertain to being sealed with the Holy Spirit. There is no reason to jump across this conceptual barrier as to imply that we are predestined because we chose to believe. This is not the logic or flow of Paul’s letter.
On the contrary, and yet again your basing your whole theory on assumptions.
Do you understand what a seal is? It is a document given by a king, which states declaration from the king. His seal guarantees that this declaration is from the king himself. and as long as it is not broken. everything that is stated must be given.
For example, if A King declares a person will receive an inheritance, will receive a position, or will receive forgiveness for something they did. The document states those things, and the seal proves it is from the king and must be carried out.
What is it that God declares??
We have received and inheritance. We have been made holy and blameless (justified) We have been redeemed by Christ, We have been adopted by Him, We have been forgiven all sin, and everything else that is declared given to us through Christ is declared. The seal of the HS assures that all that is promised is from the king himself Christ) and a guarantee that they will be carried out when we stand on judgment day. However, Unlike a kings seal, which is wax, and can be broken. The Holy Spirit is God, and his seal can never be broken. Which means all we are promised will be given.
Since the seal of the Holy Spirit is the very thing which assures all that we were predestined to receive, The things that Paul mentions are required to receive this seal (hearing the word, and having faith in it) are required to receive this seal, meaning it is required to receive all that God promised. The fact that the seal guarantees all which God declares we have been given and he predetermined we would recieve, and this seal is based on actions we must take, can not allow me to understand or believe your line of reasoning.
Assumptions? What assumptions? This is the grammatical structure of the passage. There is NO DISPUTE here among any academics. Grammatically, v3-14 is one sentence. Grammatically, Paul writes several sub-clauses to describe the spiritual blessing in his main clause. v11-12 are one sub-clause. v13-14 are another sub-clause. What did I assume?
You, however, went off on this long triad into what a seal is. Yes, we all know what a seal is. What is being sealed? Is it God's choice? Nope. It is us. We are sealed as to insure our salvation. What does this have to do with the grammatical structure of v11-12? ABSOLUTELY NOTHING! What does this have to do with how we become predestined? ABSOLUTELY NOTHING! We are predestined according to the good pleasure of his will, his choice, not according to our choice.
Keep on using your ERRANT definition of predestined. Keep on thinking God predestines to give us things based on our choices. Ignore what the text is actually saying. These are the ASSUMPTIONS you are bringing to the text.
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Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
5. Why, if faith is the basis for justification, and it is not infered here that faith was given, but through faith that we are given, do you refuse to acknowledge that it is perfectly reasonable to infer that our predestination was based on our faith. and not the cause of it. And all of it gives God the glory. But it is completely the work of God we are trusting. And not ourselves.
This question is based upon your understanding of v11-14 which I still believe is completely fallacious, so I cannot answer it directly. I have read and stated v3-6 clearly and correctly. There is nothing wrong with how I interpreted it.
I never said there was. I even agreed you were correct.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
It means something. You have not interacted with v4-6. You simply applied your understanding of v11-14 onto 4-6.
i can not deal with 4 - 6 without taking 11 - 14 to get context. It is as you said one sentence. meaning it is one idea. the whole idea has to be taken to get context. Taking 4 - 6 without 11 - 14 as context will cause us to possibly misinterpret 4-6. The fact is, you have to ignore 11 - 14 to make your interpretation of 4 - 6 stand. which is why you are demanding I stick to 4 - 6. I can't. I would not do it with any author of any book, and will not do it here. Context is one of the main directives in proper hermenuetics. ignoring context can only lead to misinterpretation., I am not going to ignore context just so a belief I have will stand.
I didn't ignore v11-14. v11-14 does not modify any understanding found in v4-6. It is your redefinition of words that makes you ignore the plain teaching of the entire text. You redefined predestined in v11 by not looking at the grammatical structure of v11. v11 says we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined. The cause of us obtaining an inheritance was God's predestination. God predestined us to obtain an inheritance for the reason to make Paul and his Apostles the praise of his glory. It is not saying God determined that the Apostles in this passage would be to the praise of his glory. "having been predestined" points back to those who obtained an inheritance as to justify why they obtained and inheritance.
It seems you think of God as being an impotent monarch. He does nothing in time as to get his way. He is like the weak monarch who won't do anything to upset his subjects. Is this really the idea of God’s Sovereignty you get from reading the Bible? I think you need to read your Bible to see what it says.
Quote Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
Deal with the over arching grammatical structure. Explain to me why your interpretation of v11-14 is correct. If my critiques, so far, of your interpretation are incorrect, then I obviously still don’t understand your perspective, and I need further explanation.
Hopefully after reading my responses today you now have a better understanding.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
By the way, you gave this “exegesis”.
Quote 11 In Him also we (We, those who Paul is writing to)have obtained an inheritance, being predestined according to the purpose of Him who works all things according to the counsel of His will, 12 that we who first trusted in Christ should be to the praise of His glory. (Paul answers what it is that is predestined. That WE who have faith,should be adopted as sons, and made Holy And Blameless to the praise of his glory) 13 In Him you (You, The people he wrote to, who first had faith. Paul is continuing the thought of we who had faith. and is going to show them what this faith did) also trusted, after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also, having believed,(Vs those who have not believed) you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise, 14 who is the guarantee of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, (The HS is given as a sign and seal that when we are presented on judgment day, we have the possession which God promised, nothing can take this away as long as we are sealed. and we are sealed until this day of redemption. which means we can not lose salvation) to the praise of His glory.(all of this, the predestined adoption as sons, Made blameless and holy or justified, and the seal of the spirit who is our guarantee based on the fact we chose to place our trust in the gospel after we heard the word of truth is done to the praise of HIS glory.. Why? Because he did all the work which we placed our trust in)
Simple errors in this “exegesis”, and things you need to take into account as you answer my argument.
1) we (We, those who Paul is writing to):
We is in the 1st person plural. It includes Paul.
read my first response to you at the top of the page. This is what I mean by being overly hypocritical. Of course I knew it meant paul also.. it is rediculous to think i did not. Just like in vs 13, when he said you. He also included himself because he also did what he said they did. However he did not have to say we, because he was not writing about himself. Try not to be so overly critical. Again it makes you seem to be pointing out insignificant problems in order to tear someone down as unbelievable. That is how people who do not have much of an argument act. Those who are sincere and confident in their faith do not need to steep to such attacks. it does not help them anyway.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
2) that we who first trusted in Christ should be to the praise of His glory. (Paul answers what it is that is predestined. That WE who have faith,should be adopted as sons, and made Holy And Blameless to the praise of his glory):
“We who first trusted in Christ” is not the same group of people as the “you” in v13 or the “we” in v11. “We”, in v11, is all Christians. “We who first trusted in Christ”, in v12, refers to Paul and those fellow ministers with him. “You”, in v13, refers to the listeners or readers of Paul’s letter. You need to defend your groups, if you want me to agree your interpretation.
I do not need to defend them. In vs 11 - 12 Paul is saying that he and those with him have also received what he just told them they received. He also said how they received it. (through faith) in vs 13 - 14, he said they also received it through the same faith in Christ paul had. Your right, he is talking about two groups. Your wrong by inferring what these groups mean. We also in vs 11 means Paul also received what he said they had. You also in vs 13 means they received them the same way paul did.
Your trying to read to much into the argument paul is making. and not listening to what he is saying. Your reading it to fit your theory, and not reading it to see what he really is saying.
Since you already agreed that there is more than one group in v11-14 you really had nothing new to comment on here. All you did was raise the same things you already raise above. I will simply move on.
Quote Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
3) You have ignored “who first trusted in Christ”’s context (the phrase’s context) to the first century Church. The listeners cannot be the first who trusted in Christ. This makes no sense. Why would a Christian, in the first century, in Asia Minor, think of themselves as “the first who trusted in Christ”. The ones “who first trusted in Christ” from their perspective was the Jews, Paul and his friends, who shared this good news with them.
I already explained what paul was referring to by saying we. We also received these things because of faith.. you also received these things because you had faith like we did. it gets no clearer than this.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
4)You misplaced what was being predestined. “In him we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to the purpose of him who works all things according to the counsel of his will,”. Who/what is being predestined? We are predestined. “Obtaining an inheritance” is what is being predestined for us. God is predestining us to obtain an inheritance. This is what the passage is saying.
Nothing I stated denies this. You are correct. Obtaining an inheritance is what is being predestined. I will not argue, nor have I argued this fact. Why you think I am I do not know.
Why? Because, you said while “exegeting” v11-14 Quote Paul answers what it is that is predestined. That WE who have faith, should be adopted as sons, and made Holy And Blameless to the praise of his glory. This is how you interpreted the predestined in v11 with v12. If the “predestined”, in v11, is connected to obtaining an inheritance, then it is not connected to “we who have faith” (really, who were the first to hope in Christ ) might be to the praise of his glory. You can’t interpret it both ways.
Quote Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
In this passage, God is not predestining a plan for salvation or choosing who will be saved based on some condition that man meets (faith). God is predetermining the very course of history. The object of predestination in the Bible is always man and/or what man will do in the course of history. For example, God predetermined all the events having to do with the Crucification of Christ including the free acts of men, God predestined us to be conformed to the image of Christ, God predestined us for adoption as sons, and God predestined us to obtain an inheritance. God does not predestine his plan.
Predestination is the application of his plan on history.
Yeah. God used the free will of men to do what God predestined them to do. He did not force the men who crucified Christ to do it. They did it of there on free will, and he knew this, and had them in place so they could do it. He also did not force isreal to reject him, In fact he could have still been crucified even if isreal did not reject him, he could have used rome to do this. The fact is. all of Gods predestination do not remove mans free will. He uses mens will to put people in place where they need to be to make sure his work is done. He also does not force men to have faith in him. He gives them the word, the gospel of salvation. and asks them to chose. do we trust Christ. or do we trust self. That is his will and purpose. that All who call on the name of the lord will be saved, That all who hear and believe will be given all he promised, and not only this, he will give them his seal ( the hs) to guarantee they will get what they trusted him to give.
God did predestine his plan. It was his plan before man was even created to do the work which would be required to save his creation from eternal damnation. It was also his plan to offer this salvation to everyone, knowing not everyone would receive his offer (gift) of salvation
God did predestine his plan? Thank you for completely ignoring the very context and use of the word predestine in the Bible. God NEVER predestines a plan. Your mixing up the direct object and indirect object of predestine. God always predestines men to do something. The indirect object of predestine is part of God’s chosen plan that takes place in history. The direct object is always man. Predestine is an active verb were God’s predestination is applied to men and makes things occur in history. God’s predestination is the primary cause of the course of history. It is God’s active power to make history turn out the way he chose it would turn out. Your understanding and use of this word is ERRANT! You have no justification for your use or understanding of this word because your WRONG.
Give one, EVEN ONE, Biblical use of “predestine” were the direct object is God’s plan. It is used 5 times: Acts 4:28, Rom. 8:29, Rom. 8:30, Eph. 1:5, and Eph. 1:11, and every use has MAN as the direct object. Man is predetermined to do something in every passage. Plans are never predetermined in the Bible. The word is simply not used in this way in SCRIPTURE. PERIOD!
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When someone gives me a gift. I do not have to recieve it. I can reject it and not take it. God offers his gift to all. It does not mean all will recieve, If God forces people to take it. It is not a gift given freely. it is a thing forced on people.
Really, Did you have to receive your life? Did you have to receive the body and mind you have? You could have been born sever autism so that you would be unable to communicate at all on this cite. Did Joni Eareckson Tada have to receive the gift of being paralyzed? God does do things that are considered gifts that we do not have to receive in order for us to obtain them.
Nice theory, but there are major holes in it.
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Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
5) Eternally-Gratefull, you correctly identified the group connected to the “you”, in v13, but you ignored the fact that this “you” is distinct from the “we” in v11 and 12 because “you” is in the 2nd person and “we” is in the 1st person. “We”, in v11, is all Christians, “we” in v12 is the Apostles, and “you” in v13 is the readers of the letter.
Already explained at least 3 times now. Hopefully now you see how I interpret this.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
6) The phrase “also trusted” is including the readers, “you” with the group who first trusted, “we” v12.
Just like the we in verse 11 is including paul and those with him with the group he is writing to.
Quote From : DoctrinesofGraceBapt April 30, 2010, 8:01 am
7) v11-14 does not mention God’s choice. Predestination is not the same thing as choice.
Your right. Just like Paul in vs 12 showed how he and those with him received their inheritance (faith) he shows in verse 13 - 14 how they received their also. God did not use choice or predestined, because he did not predestine them to have faith. He predestined them based on their faith Why would paul explain how he received his inheritance, and how they received their's if it had no meaning.
God Bless.
I have some question for you.
1. Why don’t you interact with the grammatical flow of v3-14? Why do you see v13-14 as explaining the conditions to become predestined in v11, when v11-12 are a distinct, independent sub-clause from v13-14? v11-12 and v13-14 are different clauses. Explain why one must ignore this grammatical structure and use v13-14 to define how people are predestined.
2. Why do you interpret “predestined” direct object to be God’s plan? The grammatical use of “predestined” in the Bible always has man as the direct object. God’s plan is sometimes the indirect object. Why should I believe or even consider this understanding of “predestined” when it does not match the grammatical use of “predestined” in the Bible?
3. Why do you say God’s predestination and choice in v4-5 is according to our choice to trust in Christ when it say it is according to the good pleasure of his will?
4. Why are you so against God being Sovereign as to control the very course of history? In other words, why do you spout off endless comments about man being free, men are saved by faith, and God choice being based on our choice whenever I raise the Fact that God determines the very course of history?
5. Why does your perspective of God make God seem like an impotent monarch who does nothing to upset his subjects? Why must God be a gentleman to those who are openly rebelling against him in sin? Why must God give wicked, evil, vile men, who hate God and want nothing to do with him the opportunity to be saved? What obliges God to be like this?
God Bless.
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